About the increase in welfare real income since the War on Poverty in 1967.... does that help explain why the labour force participation rate has been falling?
About the increase in welfare real income since the War on Poverty in 1967.... does that help explain why the labour force participation rate has been falling?
About the increase in welfare real income since the War on Poverty in 1967.... does that help explain why the labour force participation rate has been falling?
Of course in part. Without doubt. But stats on what part would surely be interesting.