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Cranmer, Charles's avatar

I know you have seen this before, but at the risk of repetition here it is again.

https://charles72f.substack.com/p/basel-faulty-the-financial-crisis

The financial crisis was caused by the egregious leverage and illiquidity of European banks and US shadow banks. The question is "What enabled these institutions to become so leveraged?" The answer is: The Basel Capital Standards. The crisis was caused by misguided regulation. US Commercial Banks were solid as a rock and did not need further punitive regulation (Dodd-Frank, Basel III, stress tests, Basel End-Game, etc.)

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Treeamigo's avatar

Obviously Ben’s “helicopter money” instincts after the post 9/11, post dot com crash recession also helped fuel leverage and speculation. Moreover, low rates and tight credit spreads created an ROA squeeze at major banks, and regulatory capital requirements made it fairly unprofitable to lend at the tight credit spreads. Hey- but what if banks could buy a security that yielded more than government paper but still had a zero capital risk weighting? Thanks to Basel II, “AAA” securities counted as zero risks. The banks found a solution to their ROA troubles- they just needed someone to provide lots of “AAA” securities.

There was also an international angle. Major mercantilist blocs were artificially preventing their currencies from appreciating, while accumulating ever greater trade surpluses with the US (including China, Japan, Asian Tigers, Latam and GICs). They were accumulating masses of Dollars both in trade and via intervention. These dollars flooded the banking system (and depressed US treasury interest rates) and the banks needed to do something with the cash (see the “AAA” security reference above).

In other words, the GFC wasn’t just about home buyers and condo flippers in America, and not even just about the residential mortgage market, IMO

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