Discussion about this post

User's avatar
Chartertopia's avatar

"The Englishman, unless he is the first-born inheritor of an estate, needs his own land in order to obtain autonomy and the ability to marry and form a separate household."

I am no expert on primogeniture and entailment. I know they are distinct ideas, but can one exist without the other, in practice? If other feudal societies had them too, why doesn't that quote apply to other countries and societies, which surely had just as many surplus sons?

If only England had primogeniture and entailment, why? And how did other countries and societies deal with surplus sons looking to start families?

Expand full comment
David's avatar

I think you're going too far by tying all this to modern homeownership patterns and even the financing. If you go back to the early 20th century, there was much more renting in both the US and especially England.

The current cult of homeownership is much more modern and mostly a result of deliberate policies that were adopted then.

The Macfarlane thesis about medieval English property norms might still be true, but the chain from there to 20th-century housing policy is broken imho.

Expand full comment
24 more comments...

No posts

Ready for more?